Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 19.06.2025 04:22
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Is it true that Jehovah's witnesses once thought the world would end in 1975?
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What is the difference between Michael Corleone’s marriage to Apollonia Vitelli and Kay Adams?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.